Let f : (0, 2) → R be defined as f(x) = log 2(1 + tan (πx/4)).

Question

Let ƒ : (0, 2) → \(\mathbb R\) be defined as

\(f(x)=log_2 \bigg(1+tan \bigg(\frac{\pi x}{4}\bigg)\bigg).\) Then \(\lim\limits_{n \to \infty}\) \(\frac{n}{2}\bigg(f \bigg(\frac{1}{n}\bigg) + f \bigg(\frac{2}{n}\bigg)+ .... + f(1)\bigg)\) is equal to ______ .

Answer 1

Answer is (1)