Correct Answer - A::B
In first quadrant magnetic field ue to `I_1` is outwards and due to `I_2` is inwards. So, net magnetic field may be zero.
Similarly, in third quadrant magnetic field due to `I_1` is inwards and due to `I_2` magnetic fiedl is outwards. Hence only in first and third quadrants magnetic field may be zero.
Let magnetic field is zero at point P(xy) then
`B_(I_1)=B_(I_2)`
`:. mu_0/(2pi) I_1/y mu_0/(2pi) I_2/x`
`:. y=I_1/I_2x`