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"Marginal propensity to consume falls with sucessive increase in the level of income." It is always true?

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This may be true if there is equitable distibution of income. A rational consumer always attempts to save more as his income increases, but if bigger part of national income is concentrated in a few hands, the marginal propensity to consume will be high for a poor person as he needs to spend more to fulfill his basic requirements.

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