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Can a multitape turing machine have an infinte number of tapes?

(a) Yes

(b) No

I had been asked this question in quiz.

My query is from Equivalence of One-Tape and Multitape TM’s topic in division Introduction to Turing Machines of Automata Theory

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The correct option is (b) No

The best explanation: One needs a finite number of tapes. The proofs that show the equivalence between multi-tape TM and one-band TM rely on the fact that the number of tapes is bounded.

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