This is a problem on spinor interference. Consider a neutron in the beam. There is a magnetic field B in the region where the Schrodinger equation for the (uncharged) neutron is

Supposing B to be constant and uniform, we have

where t0, t1 are respectively the instants when the neutron enters and leaves the magnetic field.
Write \(\psi\)(t) = \(\psi\)(r, t)\(\psi\)(s, t), where\(\psi\)(r, t) and \(\psi\)(s, t) are respectively the space and spin parts of \(\psi\). Then

which is the same as the wave function of a free particle, and

The interference arises from the action of B on the spin wave function. As \(\psi\)(r, t) is the wave function of a free particle, we have t1 - t0 = l/v = ml/hk and

where \(k = \frac{2\pi}\lambda = \frac {mv} h\) is the wave number of the neutron. The intensity of the interference of the two beams at D is then proportional to

and \(\sigma.B =\pm \sigma B \) depending on whether σ is parallel or anti-parallel to B, we have

Therefore, the interference intensity at \(D \propto \cos^2(\pi \mu ml \lambda B/h^2)\), where µ is the intrinsic magnetic moment of the neutron (µ < 0).