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+1 vote
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Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation

\(\left(1+x^{2}\right) \frac{d y}{d x}+y=e^{\tan ^{-1} x}, y(1)=0. \) Then y(0) is

(1) \(\frac{1}{4}\left(\mathrm{e}^{\pi / 2}-1\right)\)

(2) \(\frac{1}{2}\left(1-e^{\pi / 2}\right)\)

(3) \(\frac{1}{4}\left(1-e^{\pi / 2}\right)\)

(4) \(\frac{1}{2}\left(\mathrm{e}^{\pi / 2}-1\right)\)

1 Answer

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Best answer

Correct option is (2) \(\frac{1}{2}\left(1-e^{\pi / 2}\right)\)

\(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{y}{1+x^{2}}=\frac{e^{\tan ^{-1} x}}{1+x^{2}}\)

\( I.F. =\mathrm{e}^{\int \frac{1}{1+\mathrm{x}^{2}} \mathrm{dx}}=\mathrm{e}^{\tan ^{-1} \mathrm{x}}\)

\(y \cdot e^{\tan ^{-1} x}=\int\left(\frac{e^{\tan ^{-1} x}}{1+x^{2}}\right) e^{\tan ^{-1} x} \cdot d x\)

\( Let \tan ^{-1} \mathrm{x}=\mathrm{z} \quad \therefore \frac{\mathrm{dx}}{1+\mathrm{x}^{2}}=\mathrm{dz}\)

\(\therefore y \cdot \mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{z}}=\int \mathrm{e}^{2 \mathrm{z}} \mathrm{dz}=\frac{\mathrm{e}^{2 \mathrm{z}}}{2}+\mathrm{C}\)

\(y \cdot \mathrm{e}^{\tan ^{-1} \mathrm{x}}=\frac{\mathrm{e}^{2 \tan ^{-1} \mathrm{x}}}{2}+\mathrm{C}\)

\(\Rightarrow y=\frac{\mathrm{e}^{\tan ^{-1} x}}{2}+\frac{\mathrm{C}}{\mathrm{e}^{\tan ^{-1} \mathrm{x}}}\)

\( \because y(1)=0 \Rightarrow 0=\frac{\mathrm{e}^{\pi / 4}}{2}+\frac{\mathrm{C}}{\mathrm{e}^{\pi / 4}} \Rightarrow \mathrm{C}=\frac{-\mathrm{e}^{\pi / 2}}{2}\)

\(\therefore y=\frac{e^{\tan ^{-1} x}}{2}-\frac{e^{\pi / 2}}{2 e^{\tan ^{-1} x}}\)

\(\therefore \mathrm{y}(0)=\frac{1-\mathrm{e}^{\pi / 2}}{2}\)

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